I knew it would be something simple like that.
Thank you very much, it fits perfectly with what I have measured.
On Jul 2, 11:20 pm, r norman <
r_s_nor...@...> wrote:
> On Wed, 1 Jul 2009 20:44:31 -0700 (PDT), Bill
>
>
>
> <
connelly.b...@...> wrote:
> >Does anyone know the relationship between gap junction conductance and
> >coupling coefficient?
>
> >Coupling coefficient is the ratio of the voltage change in cell2 over
> >the voltage change in cell1, when current is injected into cell1.
>
> >I can see the circuit: Two resistors to ground (Rm of cell 1 and 2),
> >linked by the resistance of the gap junction. I can see that as the
> >resistance of the gap junction drops to 0, the coupling coefficient
> >goes to 1 (Assuming the membrane resistance of the two cells is
> >(close) equal, which is a fiar assumption). I can also see, the
> >coupling coefficient goes to 0 when there is no coupling between the
> >cells.
>
> >But is it possible to convert the coupling coefficent to a gap
> >junction conductance?
>
> The coupling coefficient is simply Rm2/(Rg + Rm2), the membrane
> resistance of cells 2 divided by the total of the gap resistance and
> the membrane resistance. If you know Rm2 you can do what you ask
> since the junction conductance is simply 1/Rg. If you don't know it,
> you can't.
_______________________________________________
Neur-sci mailing list
Neur-sci@...
http://www.bio.net/biomail/listinfo/neur-sci
